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CompTIA SK0-005 Sample Questions
Question # 1
A technician is troubleshooting a database server that has 12 external disk arrays. Multiple disks arein a degraded state. The server is in a remote colocation facility and has on-site support. Thetechnician notices all of the external storage arrays are degraded, but the internal arrays arefunctional. Which of the following steps should the technician take next to quickly address this issue?
A. Notify the users of the downtime and reboot the server from the RDP connection. B. Notify the management team about the issue and travel to the colocation site with spare disks andRAID controllers. C. Access the server with RDP and start the RAID utility software to rebuild the arrays. D. Restore the data for the affected disks and notify the users of the estimated recovery time.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
The external disk arrays being in a degraded state suggests a RAID failure or a communication issue
with the storage system.
The quickest and most effective solution is to access the RAID utility software remotely via Remote
Desktop Protocol (RDP) to diagnose and potentially rebuild the degraded arrays.
This avoids unnecessary downtime and delays caused by traveling to the site before attempting
remote troubleshooting.
If the RAID utility shows disk failures, the technician can coordinate with on-site staff for further
action, such as replacing failed drives or performing additional recovery steps.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Study Guide
ExamTopics - CompTIA SK0-005
Question # 2
A technician notices a server that contains four fans is now louder than normal even though thetemperature in the room has not changed and the load on the server has not increased. Which of thefollowing is most likely the cause of the noise?
A. Defective fan B. Change in UEFI C. Unseated drive D. Firmware upgrade needed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
A sudden increase in fan noise without any changes in temperature or server workload is typically
due to a defective fan.
If one fan fails, the remaining fans will automatically increase their speed to compensate for the loss,
leading to increased noise levels.
Servers use intelligent fan control systems, which monitor temperature and fan health. If a fan stops
functioning properly, the others will ramp up to maintain adequate cooling.
This issue can be resolved by inspecting and replacing the defective fan to restore normal cooling
operation.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Study Guide
ExamTopics - CompTIA SK0-005
Question # 3
A recently deployed server is experiencing significant connection issues after being plugged into thenetwork switch. An administrator was asked to review the server configuration and finds thefollowing:10Gb server NIC with 50-micron optic installed10m single-mode fiber patch cable to the switch10Gb switch interface with short-range optic installedWhich of the following steps should the administrator take next?
A. Replace the switch optic with one that supports MMF B. Replace the server NIC with one compatible with single-mode fiber C. Replace the optic in the server with a short-range optic D. Replace the fiber cable with a 32.8ft (10m) OM4 cable
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
The server's NIC is equipped with a 50-micron optic, indicating it is designed for multimode fiber
(MMF). However, the current setup uses a single-mode fiber (SMF) patch cable. To resolve the
connectivity issue, the administrator should replace the switch's optic module with one that supports
MMF, ensuring compatibility between the server NIC and the network infrastructure.
Question # 4
A server administrator needs to ensure proprietary data does not leave the company. Which of thefollowing should the administrator implement to meet this requirement?
A. A review of users' activities B. File-level monitoring C. A SIEM solution D. A DLP policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized transmission of
sensitive data outside the organization. Implementing DLP helps monitor and control data flows,
ensuring proprietary information remains within the company.
Question # 5
Which of the following technologies best describes Hyper-V Replica?
Hyper-V Replica is a feature in Microsoft's Hyper-V virtualization platform that enables asynchronous
replication of virtual machines to a secondary location. This technology is primarily designed for
disaster recovery scenarios, allowing organizations to restore services in the event of site failures.
Question # 6
A technician receives reports that a file server is performing slower than usual after a power failure.While investigating the issue, the technician discovers the write cache was disabled. The technicianchecks a server configuration document and confirms the cache was previously enabled. Which ofthe following events most likely caused this change?
A.The cache hit rate was high B.The volume reached 100% capacity C.The RAID controller battery failed D.A drive in the array was replaced
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Write caching improves disk performance by temporarily storing write operations in faster cache
memory before writing to disk. However, to prevent data loss during power failures, write caching
relies on a battery-backed cache. If the RAID controller's battery fails, the system may automatically
disable write caching to protect data integrity, leading to reduced performance.
Question # 7
A technician is installing a large number of servers in a data center with limited rack space. Which of
the following would accomplish this goal while using the least amount of space?
A.Blade enclosure B.Rack balancing C.Rack mount D.Rail kits
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Blade enclosures are designed to maximize server density by housing multiple blade servers within a
single chassis. This design minimizes the physical footprint compared to traditional rack-mounted
servers. Key benefits include:
Space Efficiency: Multiple servers share power, cooling, and networking within a compact enclosure.
Simplified Management: Centralized management of power, cooling, and networking simplifies
administration.
Scalability: Easily add or replace blade servers without significant reconfiguration.
Question # 8
Three new servers that use similar types of resources need to be set up, installed with the same OS,and ready within a short time frame. Which of the following installation types would most likely beused?
A.Physical clones B.Bare metal C.Virtualized D.USB
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
When deploying multiple servers that require similar resources and need to be operational quickly,
virtualization is often the most efficient approach. Virtualization allows for the creation of multiple
virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical server, each running its own instance of an operating
system. This method offers several advantages:
Rapid Deployment: VM templates can be used to quickly deploy standardized server environments,
reducing setup time.
Resource Efficiency: Virtualization enables better utilization of hardware resources by allocating
them dynamically among VMs.
Scalability: Additional virtual servers can be created as needed without the need for additional
physical hardware.
Question # 9
A technician is configuring a server that will need to accommodate a planned network upgrade. Allhosts will be changed from 10Gb copper to 25Gb fiber. Which of the following would best suit therequirements?
A.FCoE B.VLAN ID C.SFP D.HBA
Answer: C
Explanation:
The upgrade involves transitioning from 10Gb copper to 25Gb fiber, which requires appropriate
network interface hardware:
FCoE (A) - Fibre Channel over Ethernet: This protocol allows Fibre Channel to run over Ethernet
networks, but it does not address the physical change from copper to fiber.
VLAN ID (B): VLANs segment networks but do not impact the physical connectivity (copper vs. fiber).
SFP (C) - Small Form-factor Pluggable: SFP transceivers are hot-swappable modules used in network
interfaces to support fiber connections. A 25Gb SFP28 transceiver would be required for the
transition from 10Gb copper to 25Gb fiber. This is the correct answer.
HBA (D) - Host Bus Adapter: HBAs are typically used for storage connectivity (such as Fibre Channel
SANs), not general network upgrades.
Since SFP modules allow servers to support fiber connections, this is the best choice for upgrading
from 10Gb copper to 25Gb fiber.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 3 – Networking and Connectivity
Question # 10
A technician is configuring a server that will need to accommodate a planned network upgrade.All hosts will be changed from 10Gb copper to 25Gb fiber. Which of the following would best suit the requirements?
A. FCoE B. VLAN ID C. SFP D. HBA
Answer: C
Explanation:
The upgrade involves transitioning from 10Gb copper to 25Gb fiber, which requires appropriate
network interface hardware:
FCoE (A) - Fibre Channel over Ethernet: This protocol allows Fibre Channel to run over Ethernet
networks, but it does not address the physical change from copper to fiber.
VLAN ID (B): VLANs segment networks but do not impact the physical connectivity (copper vs. fiber).
SFP (C) - Small Form-factor Pluggable: SFP transceivers are hot-swappable modules used in network
interfaces to support fiber connections. A 25Gb SFP28 transceiver would be required for the
transition from 10Gb copper to 25Gb fiber. This is the correct answer.
HBA (D) - Host Bus Adapter: HBAs are typically used for storage connectivity (such as Fibre Channel
Question # 11
A systems administrator is performing a routine update to a server. The administrator applies theupdate, restarts the server, and then conducts routine testing that reveals the critical functionalityprovided by the server is unavailable. Event logs indicate a core service is failing to start. The serviceis configured to start automatically, and rolling back the update does not correct the issue. Which ofthe following is most likely causing the service failure?
A. The server requires another reboot to complete the rollback. B. The administrator is not authorized to run the service. C. The server requires further updates of other software components. D. The account used to run the service has expired.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After an update, if a core service fails to start, potential causes include dependencies, authentication,
or incomplete updates:
The server requires another reboot to complete the rollback (A): Some updates require multiple
reboots, but if rolling back did not resolve the issue, a missing dependency is more likely.
The administrator is not authorized to run the service (B): If the administrator previously had access
and the update broke the service, it is likely due to software conflicts rather than permissions.
The server requires further updates of other software components (C): Many services rely on
dependent libraries, drivers, or patches. If an update replaces or removes a necessary component,
the service may fail until additional updates are applied.
The account used to run the service has expired (D): Expired accounts usually cause authentication
failures but not outright service crashes unless explicitly required for the update process.
Since rolling back the update did not fix the issue, the most likely reason is that additional updates or
dependencies are missing.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 8 “ System Maintenance and
Troubleshooting
Question # 12
A database developer recently requested a 4TB SATA drive utilizing spinning disks be added to anexisting system for a new, heavily used database. The storage administrator turned down the requestafter reviewing it. Which of the following is the most likely reason the administrator did that?
A. The drive is not capable of deduplication. B. The drive would have slow I/O performance. C. The drive cannot use NTFS. D. The drive is not compatible with the server OS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A heavily used database requires high I/O (Input/Output) performance for frequent transactions.
Considering the storage options:
The drive is not capable of deduplication (A): Deduplication is useful for saving storage space, but it is
not a primary concern for database performance.
The drive would have slow I/O performance (B): Traditional spinning disk SATA drives have
significantly lower IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) compared to SSDs or enterprise-level
NVMe storage. A high-traffic database benefits from low-latency, high-throughput storage, which
SATA HDDs do not provide.
The drive cannot use NTFS (C): SATA drives can use NTFS, so this is incorrect.
The drive is not compatible with the server OS (D): Most modern operating systems support SATA
drives.
Because SATA spinning disks cannot handle high transaction loads efficiently, the administrator likely
An administrator is troubleshooting a performance issue with an application. The applicationperforms many small reads and writes in its operation. The administrator determines that theunderlying storage is currently configured to use a general-purpose array with RAID 5. Which of thefollowing should the administrator consider doing in order to offer higher application performanceyet still retain data protection?
A. Move the application to an array using RAID 0. B. Move the application to an array using RAID 1. C. Move the application to an array using RAID 6. D. Move the application to an array using RAID 10.
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID 5 is efficient for read-heavy workloads but is not well-suited for applications that perform many
small reads and writes due to the overhead of parity calculations. To improve performance while
maintaining redundancy:
RAID 0 (A): This would improve performance but does not offer any data protection, making it
unsuitable.
RAID 1 (B): Provides redundancy but does not enhance write performance significantly.
RAID 6 (C): Offers better fault tolerance than RAID 5 but suffers from even higher write penalties due
to double parity.
RAID 10 (D): Combines mirroring (RAID 1) and striping (RAID 0), significantly improving both read and
write performance while ensuring redundancy. This makes it the best choice for applications with
high-frequency small reads/writes.
Since the administrator needs higher performance and data protection, RAID 10 is the best choice.
Which of the following would protect data in transit?
A. SSL/TLS B. SHA-512 C. MD5 D. 3DES
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data in transit refers to data being transmitted over a network, and protecting it requires encryption:
SSL/TLS (A): Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are encryption protocols
designed specifically to protect data in transit by encrypting communication between endpoints. This
is the correct answer.
SHA-512 (B): Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) is a hashing algorithm, not an encryption method. It is
used for integrity verification rather than securing data in transit.
MD5 (C): Message Digest Algorithm 5 (MD5) is another hashing function, primarily used for
checksums and integrity checks, not for encrypting transmitted data.
3DES (D): Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm, but it is used
for data at rest rather than data in transit.
Since the question specifically asks about protecting data in transit, SSL/TLS is the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 9 “ Security and Encryption
Question # 15
A server in the data center reportedly has a BSOD and is not responding. The server needs to berebooted. Which of the following is the best method to reboot the server remotely?
A. Crash cart B. KVM C. IRMI D. shutdown -r
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a server crashes with a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) and is not responding, the most effective
way to reboot it remotely must be chosen:
Crash cart (A): A crash cart is a physical device used for troubleshooting at the server location. Since
the administrator wants a remote reboot, this is not suitable.
KVM (B): A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch allows remote management of multiple servers
but does not inherently provide reboot capabilities.
IRMI (C) - Intelligent Remote Management Interface: This is the best option. Many enterprise servers
have Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) or Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) management
tools that allow remote power control, including forced reboots.
shutdown -r (D): This command is used to restart a server via an operating system command-line
interface. However, since the server is not responding, this command cannot be executed.
Since the server is unresponsive, the best method is to use the remote management interface
(IRMI/IPMI/iLO) to force a reboot.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 7 “ Remote Server Management
Question # 16
A server recently started sending error messages about running out of memory while in use. After amaintenance period during which more memory was added, the server is still unable to consistentlyremain powered on. Which of the following should the technician check first?
A. Memory compatibility B. Memory speed C. Memory slots D. Boot order
Answer: A
Explanation:
When troubleshooting memory-related errors, it's essential to consider several key factors:
Memory Compatibility: Memory modules must match the specifications supported by the
motherboard (e.g., DDR4 vs. DDR5, ECC vs. non-ECC, buffered vs. unbuffered). Using incompatible
RAM can cause boot failures, crashes, or instability.
Memory Speed: While RAM speed mismatches can affect performance, they typically do not cause a
server to fail to power on. Most systems automatically adjust to the slowest module.
Memory Slots: Incorrect installation or damaged slots could be an issue, but the priority is to check
compatibility first.
Boot Order: This setting controls the sequence in which devices boot the OS, which is unrelated to
memory-related power issues.
Since the server remains unstable after adding memory, the most likely issue is an incompatibility
with the motherboard. The first step is to verify whether the newly installed RAM meets the servers
hardware requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 4 “ Server Components and
Troubleshootin
Question # 17
A storage administrator is configuring a new array to provide storage to a virtual cluster. The arrayhas a built-in backup agent to allow data that is stored on the array to be backed up. The storageadministrator wants the virtual cluster to use a file-based storage protocol so the backup agent canjust back up the files that change and not the whole data store. Which of the following storageprotocols should the administrator use?
A. iSCSI B. FC C. FCoE D. NFS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Different storage protocols operate at different levels (file-based vs. block-based):
iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Systems Interface) is a block-level protocol, meaning that the storage
appears as raw disk space to the operating system. Backups would require copying entire blocks,
rather than specific files.
FC (Fibre Channel) is another block-level protocol used in high-performance SANs. It does not
support file-based storage natively.
FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) extends FC over Ethernet but still functions as a block-based
storage solution.
NFS (Network File System) is a file-based storage protocol, making it the best option. It allows direct
access to files, which enables backup software to back up only modified files instead of the entire
block device.
Since the administrator requires a file-based storage protocol to ensure efficient incremental
A technician is configuring a server with eight available drive bays. The technician wants acombination of the most redundancy and the maximum available storage. Which of the followingRAID levels should the technician use?
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
When selecting a RAID level, both redundancy and storage efficiency must be considered:
RAID 1 mirrors data, providing high redundancy but reducing available storage to 50%. With eight
drives, only four drives' worth of space would be available.
RAID 5 uses striping with distributed parity. It provides good storage efficiency (n-1) but can only
tolerate one drive failure.
RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5 but uses dual parity, allowing two drives to fail while still maintaining data
integrity. However, it reduces available storage to (n-2).
RAID 10 (also known as RAID 1+0) combines mirroring and striping. It provides excellent redundancy
and performance, allowing multiple drive failures as long as they aren't in the same mirrored pair.
Storage efficiency is 50%, but the redundancy and performance benefits outweigh this trade-off
in high-availability environments.
Since the technician requires both maximum redundancy and high available storage, RAID 10 is the
best choice.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 5 “ Storage Solutions and RAID
Question # 19
A systems administrator noticed a new network card is not being recognized by the operatingsystem. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The network cable is unplugged. B. The driver is not loaded. C. The IP settings are incorrect. D. PXE boot is enabled.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a newly installed network card is not being recognized by the operating system, the most likely
cause is that the necessary driver is not installed or loaded. Device drivers act as intermediaries
between the hardware and the operating system. Without the correct driver, the OS cannot
communicate with or properly use the network card.
Other Options:
A . The network cable is unplugged: This would prevent network connectivity, but the OS would still
recognize the network card itself.
C . The IP settings are incorrect: Incorrect IP settings can cause network issues but do not prevent the
OS from recognizing the NIC.
D . PXE boot is enabled: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows a system to boot from a
network rather than a local disk. While PXE may affect booting, it does not directly cause a NIC to be
unrecognized by the OS.
Thus, the most likely cause is that the driver for the network card is not installed or properly loaded.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Server Hardware “ Explain server
components and their functions
Question # 20
A systems administrator is selecting an authentication system for a data center. The companyssecurity policy requires that the system support MFA. Which of the following options should the administrator deploy to meet the policy requirements?
A. A retinal scan and a fingerprint reader B. A key fob and an employee badge C. An RFID chip and a PIN code D. An alphanumeric, case-sensitive password with symbols
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires the use of two or more different authentication factors
to verify a users identity. The three main authentication factors are:
Something You Know “ Password, PIN, security questions
Something You Have “ Smart card, key fob, RFID chip
Something You Are “ Biometrics such as fingerprint, retina scan
Option C (RFID chip and PIN code) meets the MFA requirement
because: RFID chip (Something You Have) provides a physical security
token.
PIN code (Something You Know) adds a knowledge-based authentication factor.
Other Options:
A . Retinal scan and fingerprint reader: Both are biometric factors (Something You Are) and do not
satisfy MFA requirements, which need at least two different categories.
B . Key fob and employee badge: Both are physical items (Something You Have), failing to meet MFA
requirements.
D . An alphanumeric, case-sensitive password with symbols: This only represents Something You
Know, not MFA.
Thus, RFID chip and PIN code (Option C) provides two separate authentication factors and meets the
An administrator is unable to get server updates from a WSUS server. However, the administratorwas able to patch the server successfully last month. Which of the following should the administratorcheck first?
A. The software firewall on the local server B. Stopped services on the local server C. The primary DNS IP address assigned to the server D. The hosts file on the local server
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a server that previously received updates from a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
server suddenly fails to do so, one common cause is that the local software firewall is blocking the
necessary ports or services required for WSUS communication. Firewalls can be reconfigured, either
intentionally or accidentally, leading to such connectivity issues.
A corporation is implementing a cloud model that must meet security and privacy requirements forapplication development and testing. The company would like to use its own hardware to savemoney. Which of the following cloud models should be deployed?
A. Public B. Community C. Hybrid D. Private
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Private Cloud is a cloud computing model where the infrastructure is dedicated solely to a single
organization. This model offers enhanced security and privacy, as all resources are behind the
organization's firewall and exclusively managed by the organization. By utilizing their own hardware,
the company can control costs and tailor the environment to meet specific security and compliance
requirements, making it ideal for application development and testing.
Other Options:
A . Public: In a public cloud, services are delivered over the public internet and shared among
multiple organizations. While cost-effective, it offers less control over security and privacy, which
may not align with the company's requirements.
B . Community: This cloud model is shared among several organizations with similar interests and
requirements. Although it provides more control than a public cloud, it still involves shared
resources, which may not meet the company's strict security and privacy needs.
C . Hybrid: A hybrid cloud combines elements of both private and public clouds, allowing data and
applications to be shared between them. While it offers flexibility, managing security and privacy
across different infrastructures can be complex and may not provide the level of control the company
desires.
Therefore, deploying a Private Cloud allows the company to utilize its own hardware, ensuring
cost savings while meeting stringent security and privacy requirements for application
development and testing.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Server Administration “ Summarize the
purpose and operation of virtualization
Question # 23
Which of the following benefits of virtualization is most important during a data center migration?
A. Portability B. Orchestration C. Overprovisioning D. Scalability
Answer: A
Explanation:
During a data center migration, the ability to move workloads seamlessly from one environment to
another is crucial. Portability in virtualization refers to the capability to transfer virtual machines
(VMs) across different physical hosts or data centers with minimal disruption. This flexibility
simplifies the migration process, reduces downtime, and ensures business continuity.
Other Options:
B . Orchestration: This involves the automated arrangement, coordination, and management of
complex computer systems, middleware, and services. While orchestration enhances efficiency in
managing virtual environments, it is not the primary benefit during a migration process.
C . Overprovisioning: This refers to allocating more resources than are physically available, relying on
the assumption that not all resources will be used simultaneously. Overprovisioning can lead to
resource contention and is generally avoided in well-managed virtual environments.
D . Scalability: This is the ability to increase or decrease resources and workloads dynamically based
on demand. While scalability is a significant advantage of virtualization, it does not directly address
the challenges associated with data center migration.
Therefore, Portability is the most critical benefit of virtualization during a data center migration, as it
facilitates the efficient and reliable transfer of workloads between environments.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Server Administration “ Summarize the
purpose and operation of virtualization
Question # 24
Which of the following backup types is used to capture all data regardless of any changes from theprevious backup jobs?
A. Incremental B. Differential C. Archive D. Snapshot E. Full
Answer: E
Explanation:
A Full Backup involves copying all data from a system, regardless of whether the data has changed
since the last backup. This process ensures that a complete, standalone copy of all data is available,
facilitating straightforward restoration without the need for additional backup sets.
Other Backup Types:
A . Incremental Backup: This method backs up only the data that has changed since the last backup of
any type (full or incremental). While it is storage-efficient and has a faster backup time, restoration
requires all incremental backups since the last full backup, making the recovery process more timeconsuming.
B . Differential Backup: This approach backs up all data that has changed since the last full backup. It
simplifies the restoration process compared to incremental backups, as only the last full backup and
the latest differential backup are needed. However, it consumes more storage space and takes longer
to perform as time progresses.
C . Archive: Archiving involves moving data that is no longer actively used to a separate storage
system for long-term retention. It is not a backup type but a data management process aimed at
freeing up primary storage space.
D . Snapshot: A snapshot captures the state of a system at a specific point in time. While it provides
a quick way to restore a system to a previous state, it is typically stored on the same system and is
not a substitute for a full backup.
In summary, the Full Backup is the only method that captures all data irrespective of changes,
ensuring a comprehensive and independent data copy.
A video card in an application server was recently replaced. The server administrator is now able tolog in locally and view the screen with no issues; however, the administrator notices otherperformance issues, including the server's slow response time. The administrator reboots the server,but the issues persist. The server's cooling fans are running as normal, and the BIOS shows the dualpower supplies are each working at 30%. Which of the following is most likely causing theperformance issues?
A. A cable on the motherboard became unseated. B. The firmware is incompatible with the video card. C. A PSU is having power issues. D. A CMOS battery failed. E. Environmental temperature issues are being experienced.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Replacing hardware components, such as a video card, can sometimes lead to compatibility issues,
especially if the system's firmware (BIOS/UEFI) does not support the new hardware. In this scenario,
the server operates, and the display functions correctly, but there are performance issues like slow
response times. This suggests that while the basic functionality is intact, there may be underlying
compatibility problems affecting overall system performance.
Question # 26
A newly hired systems administrator is concerned about fileshare access at the company. Theadministrator turns on DLP for the fileshare and lets it propagate for a week. Which of the followingcan the administrator perform now?
A. Manage the fileshare from an RDP session. B. Audit the permissions of the fileshare. C. Audit the access to the physical fileshare. D. Manage the permissions from the fileshare.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems are designed to monitor and protect sensitive data from
unauthorized access, use, or transmission. By enabling DLP on a fileshare, the system administrator
can track how data is accessed and used over time.
After allowing the DLP system to run for a week, the administrator can audit the permissions of the
fileshare. This involves reviewing which users and groups have access to the fileshare and
determining if their permissions align with their roles and responsibilities. Auditing permissions
helps identify any discrepancies or excessive privileges that could lead to potential data breaches or
unauthorized data exposure.
Other Options:
A . Manage the fileshare from an RDP session: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows
administrators to remotely manage servers and their resources. While this is a method to access the
server, it
doesn't directly relate to auditing or managing fileshare permissions.
C . Audit the access to the physical fileshare: Auditing physical access involves reviewing who has
physical entry to the hardware where the fileshare resides. While important, enabling DLP focuses on
monitoring digital access and data movement rather than physical security.
D . Manage the permissions from the fileshare: Managing permissions involves setting or modifying
user access rights. However, before making changes, it's crucial to audit existing permissions to
understand the current access control structure.
Therefore, after running DLP for a week, the appropriate action is to audit the permissions of the
fileshare to ensure that access controls are properly configured and align with the principle of least
A security team must ensure that unauthorized individuals are unable to tailgate through the datacenter's entrance. Which of the following should be implemented to stop this type of breach fromhappening?
A. Access control vestibule B. Cameras C. Bollards D. Biometrics
Answer: A
Explanation:
Tailgating is a security breach where an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into a
secured area without proper credentials. To prevent tailgating, implementing an access control
vestibule, also known as a mantrap, is highly effective.
An access control vestibule is a small room with two interlocking doors, where the first door must
close and lock before the second door can be opened. This setup ensures that only one person can
enter the secured area at a time, effectively preventing unauthorized individuals from gaining access
by following someone else.
Other Options:
B . Cameras: While surveillance cameras can monitor and record entrances, they do not physically
prevent tailgating. They serve as a deterrent and provide evidence after an incident has occurred but
do not stop unauthorized entry in real-time.
C . Bollards: Bollards are physical barriers used to prevent vehicular access to certain areas. They are
not effective in preventing unauthorized individuals from tailgating into a building or secured area.
D . Biometrics: Biometric systems (e.g., fingerprint or retina scanners) verify the identity of
individuals but do not address the issue of someone following an authorized person through an open
door. Without physical barriers like an access control vestibule, tailgating can still occur even with
biometric systems in place.
Therefore, the most effective measure to prevent tailgating is the implementation of an access
CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005) Study Guide: Chapter on Security and Disaster Recovery
Question # 29
A certain application initially uses 1TB of drive space, but this is expected to double each year forthe next two years. Which of the following is the minimum number of 1TB drives that are needed ina RAID 5 configuration?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 5 is a storage configuration that uses striping with parity, providing both improved performance
and fault tolerance. It requires a minimum of three disks, where data and parity information are
distributed across all drives. The storage capacity of a RAID 5 array is calculated as (N - 1) * S, where
N is the number of drives, and S is the size of each drive.
Storage Requirements:
Initial Storage: 1TB
After 1 Year: Doubles to 2TB
After 2 Years: Doubles again to 4TB
To accommodate 4TB of data in a RAID 5 setup, we use the formula:
(N - 1) * 1TB ≥ 4TB
Solving for N:
N - 1 ≥ 4
N ≥ 5
Therefore, a minimum of 5 drives, each 1TB in size, is required to meet the projected storage needs.
This configuration will provide a total usable capacity of 4TB, with 1TB allocated for parity to ensure
fault tolerance.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): RAID Levels and Types
CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005) Study Guide: Chapter on Storage Solutions
Question # 30
A systems administrator is setting up a second VLAN for end users. Which of the following should beprovisioned for a DHCP server to be able to receive client requests from a different subnet?
A. DHCP options B. NIC teaming C. Zone transfers D. Relay agent E. VLAN ID
Answer: D
Question # 31
A technician is investigating a server's configuration to secure it from physical threats. Thetechnician checks the BIOS and sees the following boot order:USB Drive CDROM Drive Network Adapter RAID ControllerAdditionally, the server's host OS is stored on mirrored drives. Which of the following should thetechnician do to secure the server?
A. Disable all except RAID Controller. B. Block USB ports on the server. C. Set BIOS password. D. Move RAID Controller to the top of the list.
Answer: B
Question # 32
A senior administrator was notified that a junior administrator installed software on a server thatshould not have new software installed on it. The senior administrator decides to restrict the servervia a Group Policy. Which of the following can be used to elevate the permissions?
A. Computer management B. AD C. Local users and groups D. UAC
Answer: C
Question # 33
A server administrator is tasked with ensuring that information stored on company database systemsis secure from bad actors. Which of the following security practices would accomplish this task?
A. Encryption at rest B. Audit logging C. BIOS password D. Signal blocking
Answer: A
Question # 34
Following a recent power outage, a server on a server farm has been running slowly. A technicianreceives a ticket with a request to check for anything out of the ordinary. The technician sees anorange light on the front console of the server, indicating an error. Which of the following should thetechnician check next?
A. CPU B. Power supply C. RAM D. RAID battery
Answer: B
Question # 35
A systems administrator notices the fans are running at full speed in a newly upgraded server. Whichof the following should be done to address this issue?
A. Replace the PSU. B. Reseat the video card. C. Reseat the RAM. D. Reattach the heat sink.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with all CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Study Guide Reference:If
the fans are running at full speed, it may indicate that the CPU or system temperature is too high. This is
often caused by a poorly attached or improperly seated heat sink, which prevents efficient heat
dissipation. Reattaching the heat sink with proper thermal paste resolves the issue.
A . Replace the PSU:Not relevant to temperature control.
B . Reseat the video card:Would not affect fan speed unless a GPU temperature issue exists, which is
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