We just do not compromise with the bright future of our respected customers. PassExam4Sure takes the future of clients quite seriously and we ensure that our N10-008 exam dumps get you through the line. If you think that our exam question and answers did not help you much with the exam paper and you failed it somehow, we will happily return all of your invested money with a full 100% refund.
100% Real Questions
We verify and assure the authenticity of CompTIA N10-008 exam dumps PDFs with 100% real and exam-oriented questions. Our exam questions and answers comprise 100% real exam questions from the latest and most recent exams in which you’re going to appear. So, our majestic library of exam dumps for CompTIA N10-008 is surely going to push on forward on the path of success.
Security & Privacy
Free for download CompTIA N10-008 demo papers are available for our customers to verify the authenticity of our legit helpful exam paper samples, and to authenticate what you will be getting from PassExam4Sure. We have tons of visitors daily who simply opt and try this process before making their purchase for CompTIA N10-008 exam dumps.
Last Week N10-008 Exam Results
201
Customers Passed CompTIA N10-008 Exam
97%
Average Score In Real N10-008 Exam
96%
Questions came from our N10-008 dumps.
Authentic N10-008 Exam Dumps
Prepare for CompTIA N10-008 Exam like a Pro
PassExam4Sure is famous for its top-notch services for providing the most helpful, accurate, and up-to-date material for CompTIA N10-008 exam in form of PDFs. Our N10-008 dumps for this particular exam is timely tested for any reviews in the content and if it needs any format changes or addition of new questions as per new exams conducted in recent times. Our highly-qualified professionals assure the guarantee that you will be passing out your exam with at least 85% marks overall. PassExam4Sure CompTIA N10-008 ProvenDumps is the best possible way to prepare and pass your certification exam.
Easy Access and Friendly UI
PassExam4Sure is your best buddy in providing you with the latest and most accurate material without any hidden charges or pointless scrolling. We value your time and we strive hard to provide you with the best possible formatting of the PDFs with accurate, to the point, and vital information about CompTIA N10-008. PassExam4Sure is your 24/7 guide partner and our exam material is curated in a way that it will be easily readable on all smartphone devices, tabs, and laptop PCs.
PassExam4Sure - The Undisputed King for Preparing N10-008 Exam
We have a sheer focus on providing you with the best course material for CompTIA N10-008. So that you may prepare your exam like a pro, and get certified within no time. Our practice exam material will give you the necessary confidence you need to sit, relax, and do the exam in a real exam environment. If you truly crave success then simply sign up for PassExam4Sure CompTIA N10-008 exam material. There are millions of people all over the globe who have completed their certification using PassExam4Sure exam dumps for CompTIA N10-008.
100% Authentic CompTIA N10-008 – Study Guide (Update 2024)
Our CompTIA N10-008 exam questions and answers are reviewed by us on weekly basis. Our team of highly qualified CompTIA professionals, who once also cleared the exams using our certification content does all the analysis of our recent exam dumps. The team makes sure that you will be getting the latest and the greatest exam content to practice, and polish your skills the right way. All you got to do now is to practice, practice a lot by taking our demo questions exam, and making sure that you prepare well for the final examination. CompTIA N10-008 test is going to test you, play with your mind and psychology, and so be prepared for what’s coming. PassExam4Sure is here to help you and guide you in all steps you will be going through in your preparation for glory. Our free downloadable demo content can be checked out if you feel like testing us before investing your hard-earned money. PassExam4Sure guaranteed your success in the CompTIA N10-008 exam because we have the newest and most authentic exam material that cannot be found anywhere else on the internet.
CompTIA N10-008 Sample Questions
Question # 1
A company has multiple offices around the world. The computer rooms in some office locations are too warm
Dedicated sensors are in each room, but the process of checking each sensor takes a long time. Which of the
following options can the company put In place to automate temperature readings with internal resources?
A. Implement NetFlow. B. Hire a programmer to write a script to perform the checks C. Utilize ping to measure the response. D. Use SNMP with an existing collector server
Answer: D Explanation SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to communicate
with a management server. By using SNMP, the company can set up an SNMP agent on each sensor, which
will report its temperature readings to an existing collector server. This will enable the company to monitor the
temperatures of all their sensors in real-time without the need for manual checks. Additionally, SNMP's
scalability means that even if the company adds more rooms or sensors, the existing system can be easily
expanded to accommodate them.
Question # 2
A network administrator is adding a new switch to the network. Which of the following network hardening
techniques would be BEST to use once the switch is in production?
A. Disable unneeded ports B. Disable SSH service C. Disable MAC filtering D. Disable port security
Answer: A
Question # 3
A technician is configuring a static IP address on a new device in a newly created subnet. The work order
specifies the following requirements:. The IP address should use the highest address available in the subnet.. The default gateway needs to be set to 172.28.85.94.. The subnet mask needs to be 255.255.255.224.Which of the following addresses should the engineer apply to the device?
A. 172.28.85.93 B. 172.28.85.95 C. 172.28.85.254 D. 172.28.85.255
A network technician 13 troubleshooting a specific port on a switch. Which of the following commands should
the technician use to see the port configuration?
A. show route B. show Interface C. show arp D. show port
Answer: B Explanation To see the configuration of a specific port on a switch, the network technician should use the "show interface"
command. This command provides detailed information about the interface, including the current
configuration, status, and statistics for the interface.
Question # 5
A corporation is looking for a method to secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center in order
to provide a zero-touch experience for all staff members who work there. Which of the following would BEST
meet this requirement?
A. Site-to-site VPN B. VNC C. Remote desktop gateway D. Virtual LANs
Answer: A Explanation A site-to-site VPN is a method that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two internet gateways,
such as routers or firewalls, that belong to different networks1. A site-to-site VPN can secure all traffic
between a branch office and its data center by creating a virtual tunnel that protects the data from interception
or tampering. A site-to-site VPN can also provide a zero-touch experience for all staff members who work
there, as they do not need to install any software or configure any settings on their devices to access the data
center resources. They can simply use their local network as if they were physically connected to the data
center network. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a method that allows remote access and control of a computer’s desktop
from another device over a network. VNC can enable staff members to work remotely by accessing their 2
office computers from their home computers or mobile devices. However, VNC does not secure all traffic
between a branch office and its data center, as it only works at the application layer and does not encrypt the
network layer. VNC also does not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need to install
software and configure settings on both the host and the client devices.
Remote desktop gateway is a method that allows remote access and control of a computer’s desktop from
another device over a network using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). Remote desktop gateway can also
enable staff members to work remotely by accessing their office computers from their home computers or
mobile devices. However, remote desktop gateway does not secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center, as it only works at the application layer and does not encrypt the network layer. Remote desktop
gateway also does not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need to install software and
configure settings on both the host and the client devices.
Virtual LANs (VLANs) are methods that create logical subdivisions of a physical network based on criteria
such as function, department, or security level. VLANs can improve network performance, security, and
management by reducing broadcast domains, isolating traffic, and enforcing policies. However, VLANs do not
secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center, as they only work at the data link layer and do not
encrypt the network layer. VLANs also do not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need
to configure settings on their network devices to join or leave a VLAN.
Question # 6
A company, which is located in a coastal town, retrofitted an office building for a new data center. The
underground fiber optics were brought in and connected to the switches in the basement network MDF. A
server data center was built on the fifth floor with the two rooms vertically connected by fiber optics. Which of
the following types of environmental sensors is MOST needed?
A. Temperature sensor in the network MDF B. Water sensor in the network MDF C. Temperature sensor in the data center D. Water sensor in the data center
Answer: B Explanation A water sensor is a type of environmental sensor that detects the presence of water or moisture in an area. A
water sensor is most needed in a network main distribution frame (MDF) that is located in a basement near
underground fiber-optic cables. A network MDF is a central point where all the network connections converge
and where network equipment such as switches and routers are located. If water leaks into the basement and
damages the fiber-optic cables or the network equipment, it can cause network outages, performance
degradation, or data loss. A water sensor can alert the network administrator of any water intrusion and help
prevent or minimize the damage. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 446)
Question # 7
In which of the following components do routing protocols belong in a software-defined network?
A. Infrastructure layer B. Control layer C. Application layer D. Management plane
Answer: B Explanation A software-defined network (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data
plane and centralizes the network intelligence in a software controller. The control plane is the part of the
network that makes decisions about how to route traffic, while the data plane is the part of the network that
forwards traffic based on the control plane’s instructions. The control layer is the layer in an SDN that contains
the controller and the routing protocols that communicate with the network devices. The control layer is
responsible for managing and configuring the network devices and providing them with the necessary
information to forward traffic. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 378)
Question # 8
A network security engineer locates an unapproved wireless bridge connected to the corporate LAN that is
broadcasting a hidden SSID, providing unauthenticated access to internal resources. Which of the following
types of attacks BEST describes this finding?
A. Rogue access point Most Voted B. Evil twin C. ARP spoofing D. VLAN hopping
Answer: A Explanation A rogue access point is an illegitimate access point plugged into a network to create a bypass from outside into
the legitimate network. By contrast, an evil twin is a copy of a legitimate access point.
Question # 9
The lack of a formal process to grant network permissions to different profiles of employees and contractors is
leading to an increasing number of security incidents Non-uniform and overly permissive network accesses are
being granted. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate method to improve the security of the
environment?
A. Change the default permissions to implicit deny B. Configure uniform ACLs to employees and NAC for contractors. C. Deploy an RDP server to centralize the access to the network D. Implement role-based access control
Answer: D Explanation The most appropriate method to improve the security of the environment would be to implement role-based
access control (RBAC). With RBAC, users are granted access to the network based on their role within the
organization. This allows for more granular access control, as different roles may require different levels of
access. Additionally, this ensures that users only have access to the resources they need and no more. This
helps to reduce the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of the network. References and further information
can be found in the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, Chapter 8, Access Control. RBAC is a method of restricting network access based on the roles of individual users within the organization.
With RBAC, users are granted access only to the resources they need to perform their specific job functions.
This approach reduces the risk of unauthorized access, provides greater visibility into user activity, and
simplifies network management. Changing the default permissions to implicit deny may improve security, but it could also cause issues for
legitimate users who require access to specific resources. Configuring uniform ACLs and NAC for contractors
is a step in the right direction, but it may not be enough to address the overall lack of a formal process for
granting network permissions. Deploying an RDP server to centralize access to the network is not a viable
solution, as it would not address the root cause of the security incidents. Therefore, the most appropriate option is to implement role-based access control. Reference: CompTIA
Network+ Study Guide, Fourth Edition, Chapter 7, section 7.4.
Question # 10
During the troubleshooting of an E1 line, the point-to-point link on the core router was accidentally unplugged
and left unconnected for several hours. However, the network management team was not notified. Which of
the following could have been configured to allow early detection and possible resolution of the issue?
A. Traps B. MIB C. OID D. Baselines
Answer: A Explanation Traps are unsolicited messages sent by network devices to a network management system (NMS) when an
event or a change in status occurs. Traps can help notify the network management team of any issues or
problems on the network, such as a link failure or a device reboot. Traps can also trigger actions or alerts on
the NMS, such as sending an email or logging the event. MIB stands for Management Information Base and is
a database of information that can be accessed and managed by an NMS using SNMP (Simple Network
Management Protocol). OID stands for Object Identifier and is a unique name that identifies a specific variable
in the MIB. Baselines are measurements of normal network performance and behavior that can be used for
comparison and analysis.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.5: Given
a scenario, use remote access methods.
Question # 11
A coffee shop owner hired a network consultant to provide recommendations for installing a new wireless
network. The coffee shop customers expect high speeds even when the network is congested. Which of the
following standards should the consultant recommend?
A. 802.11ac B. 802.11ax C. 802.11g D. 802.11n
Answer: B Explanation 802.11ax is the latest and most advanced wireless standard, providing higher speeds, lower latency, and more
capacity than previous standards. It also supports OFDMA, which allows multiple devices to share a channel
and reduce congestion. The other options are older standards that have lower bandwidth, range, and efficiency
than 802.11ax. Therefore, 802.11ax is the best option for the coffee shop owner who wants to provide high
speeds even when the network is congested.
Question # 12
An engineer is using a tool to run an ICMP sweep of a network to find devices that are online. When
reviewing the results, the engineer notices a number of workstations that are currently verified as being online
are not listed in the report.The tool was configured to scan using the following information:Network address: 172.28.16.0
CIDR: /22The engineer collected the following information from the client workstation:
IP address: 172.28.17.206
Subnet mask: 255.255.252.0
Which of the following MOST likely explains why the tool is failing to detect some workstations?
A. The scanned network range is incorrect. B. The subnet mask on the client is misconfigured. C. The workstation has a firewall enabled. D. The tool is unable to scan remote networks.
Answer: C Explanation A firewall is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on
predefined rules. A firewall can block ICMP packets, which are used for ping and other diagnostic tools. If the
workstation has a firewall enabled, it may not respond to the ICMP sweep and appear as offline. The engineer
should check the firewall settings on the workstation and allow ICMP traffic if needed.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, use the appropriate tool.
Question # 13
A consultant is working with two international companies. The companies will be sharing cloud resources for
a project. Which of the following documents would provide an agreement on how to utilize the resources?
A. MOU B. NDA C. AUP D. SLA
Answer: A Explanation
A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a document that describes an agreement between two or more
parties on how to utilize shared resources for a project. An MOU is not legally binding, but it outlines the
expectations and responsibilities of each party involved in the collaboration. An MOU can be used when two
international companies want to share cloud resources for a project without creating a formal contract.
References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 405)
Question # 14
A PC user who is on a local network reports very slow speeds when accessing files on the network server The
user's PC Is connecting, but file downloads are very slow when compared to other users' download speeds The
PC's NIC should be capable of Gigabit Ethernet. Which of the following will MOST likely fix the issue?
A. Releasing and renewing the PC's IP address B. Replacing the patch cable C. Reseating the NIC inside the PC D. Flushing the DNS cache
Answer: B Explanation A slow download speed can be caused by a faulty patch cable, which is the cable used to connect the user's PC
to the network server. If the patch cable is damaged, the connection will be slower than expected, resulting in
slow download speeds. Replacing the patch cable is the most likely solution to this issue, as it will provide a
new, reliable connection that should allow for faster download speeds.
Question # 15
Which of the following would be BEST suited for use at the access layer in a three-tier architecture system?
A. Router B. Multilayer switch C. Layer 2 switch D. Access point
Answer: C Explanation A layer 2 switch is a device that forwards traffic based on MAC addresses within a single network segment or
VLAN. A layer 2 switch is best suited for use at the access layer in a three-tier architecture system. The access
layer is the layer that connects end devices such as computers, printers, and phones to the network. A layer 2
switch can provide fast and efficient switching for end devices without adding complexity or overhead to the
network. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 139)
Question # 16
After HVAC failures caused network outages, the support team decides to monitor the temperatures of all the
devices. The network administrator cannot find a command that will display this information. Which of the
following will retrieve the necessary information?
A. SNMP OID values B. NetFlow data export C. Network baseline configurations D. Security information and event management
Answer: A Explanation The network administrator can use the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to monitor the
temperatures of all the devices. SNMP is a widely-used protocol for managing and monitoring network
devices, such as routers, switches, servers, and other networking equipment. SNMP allows network
administrators to gather information about the performance and status of devices on the network, including
temperature readings. To retrieve the temperature information, the administrator will have to configure SNMP on the devices and
configure SNMP manager software on their computer. Once the SNMP manager software is configured, it will
be able to send SNMP requests to the devices and retrieve information such as temperature, voltage, fan
speeds, etc. Many network devices have built-in SNMP support, and the administrator may also need to install
SNMP agent software on the devices to enable SNMP monitoring. The administrator can also use some specific command or tool like IPMI (Intelligent Platform Management
Interface) or DCIM (Data Center Infrastructure Management) tools for monitoring the temperatures of all the
devices.
Question # 17
Which of the following would be the MOST likely attack used to bypass an access control vestibule?
A. Tailgating B. Phishing C. Evil twin D. Brute-force
Answer: A Explanation Tailgating is when someone follows an authorized person into a restricted area without having the proper
credentials. This is usually done by pretending to be with the authorized person, or by offering assistance.
Tailgating is a social engineering attack and does not require any technical skill.
Question # 18
An attacker targeting a large company was able to inject malicious A records into internal name resolution
servers. Which of the following attack types was MOST likely used?
A. DNS poisoning B. On-path C. IP spoofing D. Rogue DHCP
Answer: A
Question # 19
Which of the following can be used to validate domain ownership by verifying the presence of pre-agreed
content contained in a DNS record?
A. SOA B. SRV C. AAA D. TXT
Answer: D Explanation "One final usage of the TXT resource record is how some cloud service providers, such as Azure, validate
ownership of custom domains. You are provided with data to include in your TXT record, and once that is
created, the domain is verified and able to be used. The thought is that if you control the DNS, then you own
the domain name."
Question # 20
A company is considering shifting its business to the cloud. The management team is concerned at the availability of the third-party cloud service. Which of the following should the management team consult to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider?
A. Memorandum of understanding B. Business continuity plan C. Disaster recovery plan D. Service-level agreement
Answer: D
Explanation
A Service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that outlines the responsibilities of a cloud service provider and the customer. It typically includes the agreed-upon availability of the cloud service provider, the expected uptime for the service, and the cost of any downtime or other service interruptions. Consulting the SLA is the best way for the management team to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider. Reference:
CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, page 28.
Question # 21
Which of the following protocols uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the LOWEST cost between routers?
A. RIP B. OSPF C. BGP D. EIGRP
Answer: B Explanation OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First and is a link-state routing protocol that uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to
calculate the lowest cost between routers. OSPF assigns a cost value to each link based on factors such as
bandwidth, delay, or reliability, and builds a map of the network topology. OSPF then uses Dijkstra’s
algorithm to find the shortest path from each router to every other router in the network1. RIP stands for
Routing Information Protocol and is a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as the metric to find
the best path. BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol and is a path-vector routing protocol that uses
attributes such as AS path, local preference, or origin to select the best route. EIGRP stands for Enhanced
Interior Gateway Routing Protocol and is a hybrid routing protocol that uses a composite metric based on
bandwidth, delay, load, and reliability.
References: 1 Dijkstra’s algorithm - Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dijkstra%27s_algorithm)
Question # 22
A company's primary ISP is experiencing an outage. However, the network administrator notices traffic
continuing to flow through a secondary connection to the same ISP. Which of the following BEST describes
this configuration?
A. Diverse paths B. Load balancing C. Multipathing D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
Answer: A
Question # 23
Which of the following is a valid and cost-effective solution to connect a fiber cable into a network switch
without available SFP ports?
A. Use a media converter and a UTP cable B. Install an additional transceiver module and use GBICs C. Change the type of connector from SC to F-type D. Use a loopback adapter to make the connection
Answer: A
Question # 24
Which of the following would be BEST suited for a long cable run with a 40Gbps bandwidth?
A. Cat 5e B. Cat 6a C. Cat 7 D. Cat 8
Answer: C Explanation Cat 7 is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports up to 40 Gbps bandwidth and up to 100 meters cable
length. Cat 7 is suitable for long cable runs that require high-speed data transmission. Cat 7 has better
shielding and crosstalk prevention than lower categories of cables. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.5: Compare and contrast network cabling types, features and their purposes.
Question # 25
Which of the following routing protocols is BEST suited for use on a perimeter router?
A. OSPF B. RIPv2 C. EIGRP D. BGP
Answer: D Explanation BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol and it is used to exchange routing information between autonomous
systems (AS) on the Internet. A perimeter router is a router that connects an AS to another AS or to the
Internet. Therefore, BGP is the best suited routing protocol for a perimeter router.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast the characteristics of network
topologies, types and technologies.
Question # 26
A network technician is configuring a wireless access point and wants to only allow company-owned devices
to associate with the network. The access point uses PSKs, and a network authentication system does not exist on the network. Which of the following should the
technician implement?
A. Captive portal B. Guest network isolation C. MAC filtering D. Geofencing
Answer: C Explanation MAC filtering is a method of allowing only company-owned devices to associate with the network by using
their MAC addresses as identifiers. A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface
card (NIC) by the manufacturer. MAC filtering can be configured on the wireless access point to allow or deny
access based on the MAC address of the device. This way, only devices with known MAC addresses can
connect to the network. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide
(page 323)
Question # 27
Which of the following describes when an active exploit is used to gain access to a network?
A. Penetration testing B. Vulnerability testing C. Risk assessment D. Posture assessment E. Baseline testing
Answer: A Explanation Penetration testing is a type of security testing that is used to assess the security of a system or network by
actively exploiting known vulnerabilities. It is used to simulate an attack on the system and identify any
weaknesses that may be exploited by malicious actors. As stated in the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide,
"penetration testing is a type of security assessment that attempts to gain unauthorized access to networks and
systems by exploiting security vulnerabilities."
Question # 28
Which of the following is a requirement when certifying a network cabling as Cat 7?
A. Ensure the patch panel is certified for the same category. B. Limit 10Gb transmissions to 180ft (55m). C. Use F-type connectors on the network terminations. D. Ensure the termination standard is TIA/EIA-568-A.
Answer: D Explanation Category 7 (Cat 7) is a cabling standard that supports 10GBASE-T Ethernet connections up to 100 meters (328
feet). In order for a cabling system to be certified as Cat 7, all components, including the patch panel, must
meet the TIA/EIA-568-A standard. This standard requires the use of shielded cables with F-type connectors
for the network terminations. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, 8th Edition, page 158.
Question # 29
A network resource was accessed by an outsider as a result of a successful phishing campaign. Which of the
following strategies should be employed to mitigate the effects of phishing?
A. Multifactor authentication B. Single sign-on C. RADIUS D. VPN
Answer: A Explanation Multifactor authentication is a security measure that requires users to provide multiple pieces of evidence
before they can access a network resource. This could include requiring users to enter a username, password,
and a code sent to the user's mobile phone before they are allowed access. This ensures that the user is who
they say they are, reducing the risk of malicious actors gaining access to network resources as a result of a
successful phishing campaign.
Question # 30
Which of the following should be used to manage outside cables that need to be routed to various multimode uplinks?
A. Fiber distribution panel B. 110 punchdown block C. PDU D. TIA/EIA-568A patch bay
Answer: A
Explanation
A fiber distribution panel is a device that provides a central location for connecting and managing fiber optic cables and optical modules. It can support various types and speeds of fiber optic links, including multimode
uplinks. Therefore, a fiber distribution panel should be used to manage outside cables that need to be routed to
various multimode uplinks.
Question # 31
Several users with older devices are reporting intermittent connectivity while in an outdoor patio area. After
some research, the network administrator determines that an outdoor WAP might help with the issue.
However, the company does not want the signal to bleed into the building and cause interference. Which of the
following should the network administrator perform to BEST resolve the issue?
A. Disable the SSID broadcast on the WAP in the patio area. B. Install a WAP and enable 5GHz only within the patio area. C. Install a directional WAP in the direction of the patio. D. Install a repeater on the back wall of the patio area.
Answer: C
Question # 32
Which of the following is the NEXT step to perform network troubleshooting after identifying an issue?
A. Implement a solution. B. Establish a theory. C. Escalate the issue D. Document the findings.
Answer: B
Explanation
1 Identify the Problem.
2 Develop a Theory.
3 Test the Theory.
4 Plan of Action.
5 Implement the Solution.
6 Verify System Functionality.
7 Document the Issue.
Question # 33
Which of the following is the IEEE link cost for a Fast Ethernet interface in STP calculations?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 19 D. 100
Answer: D Explanation The IEEE standard for link cost for a Fast Ethernet interface is 100, and for a Gigabit Ethernet interface is 19.
These values are based on the bandwidth of the interface, with lower values indicating a higher-bandwidth
interface.
Question # 34
An ISP configured an internet connection to provide 20Mbps, but actual data rates are occurring at 10Mbps and causing a significant delay in data transmission. Which of the following specifications should the ISP check?
A. Throughput B. Latency C. Bandwidth D. Jitter
Answer: A
Explanation
Throughput is the actual amount of data that can be transferred over a network in a given time. Throughput can be affected by various factors such as congestion, interference, errors, or hardware limitations. If the throughput is lower than the configured internet connection speed, it can cause a significant delay in data transmission. The ISP should check the throughput and identify the source of the problem.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.2: Explain the concepts and characteristics of routing and switching.
Question # 35
A technician is equipped with a tablet, a smartphone, and a laptop to troubleshoot a switch with the help of
support over the phone. However, the technician is having issues interconnecting all these tools in
troubleshooting the switch. Which Of the following should the technician use to gain connectivity?
A. PAN B. WAN C. LAN D. MAN
Answer: A Explanation A PAN stands for Personal Area Network and it is a type of network that connects devices within a small
range, such as a few meters. A PAN can use wireless technologies such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to interconnect
devices such as tablets, smartphones, and laptops. A technician can use a PAN to gain connectivity among
these tools and troubleshoot the switch. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.2: Explain devices, applications, protocols and services at
their appropriate OSI layers.
Question # 36
A network engineer developed a plan of action to resolve an ongoing issue. Which of the following steps
should the engineer take NEXT?
A. Verify full system functionality and implement preventative measures. B. Implement the solution to resolve the problem. C. Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. D. Establish a theory of probable cause.
Answer: B Explanation Network troubleshooting is a repeatable process, which means that you can break it down into clear steps that anyone can follow Identify the Problem. ... Develop a Theory. ...
Test the Theory. ... Plan of Action. ... Implement the Solution. ...
Verify System Functionality. ... Document the Issue. Theory of probable cause is before Plan of action.
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/a-guide-to-network-troubleshooting
Question # 37
An IT technician installs five old switches in a network. In addition to the low port rates on these switches, they also have improper network configurations. After three hours, the network becomes overwhelmed by continuous traffic and eventually shuts down. Which Of the following is causing the issue?
A. Broadcast storm B. Collisions C. IP settings D. Routing loops
Answer: A
Explanation
A broadcast storm is a situation where a network is flooded with broadcast packets, which are sent to all devices on the network. This can consume bandwidth, cause congestion, and degrade performance. A broadcast storm can be caused by improper network configurations, such as loops or misconfigured switches.
In this scenario, the old switches may have created loops or failed to filter broadcast packets, resulting in a broadcast storm that overwhelmed the network.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues.
Question # 38
A company is designing a SAN and would like to use STP as its medium for communication. Which of the
following protocols would BEST suit me company's needs?
A. SFTP B. Fibre Channel C. iSCSI D. FTP
Answer: B Explanation A SAN also employs a series of protocols enabling software to communicate or prepare data for storage. The
most common protocol is the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP), which maps SCSI commands over FC
technology. The iSCSI SANs will employ an iSCSI protocol that maps SCSI commands over TCP/IP. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a protocol used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks, and it is not a medium
for communication in a storage area network (SAN). However, Fibre Channel is a protocol that is specifically
designed for high-speed data transfer in SAN environments. It is a dedicated channel technology that provides
high throughput and low latency, making it ideal for SANs. Therefore, Fibre Channel would be the best protocol for the company to use for its SAN. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol), iSCSI (Internet Small
Computer System Interface), and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) are protocols used for transferring files over a
network and are not suitable for use in a SAN environment.
Question # 39
An engineer needs to verity the external record tor SMTP traffic. The engineer logged in to the server and entered the nslookup command. Which of the following commands should the engineer send before entering the DNS name?
A. set type=A B. is -d company-mail.com C. set domain=company.mail.com D. set querytype=Mx
Answer: D
Question # 40
A company wants to invest in new hardware for the core network infrastructure. The management team
requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails.
Which of the following metrics is MOST likely associated with this requirement?
A. RPO B. MTTR C. FHRP D. MTBF
Answer: B Explanation MTTR is directly related to how quickly a system can be repaired if any major part fails 3. The management
team requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes, which means they
have a low MTTR requirement. MTTR stands for Mean Time To Repair and is a metric used to measure the average amount of time it takes to
repair a failed component or system. In this case, the requirement is for the infrastructure to be capable of
being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails, which means the MTTR should be less than 60
minutes.
Question # 41
A new office space is being designed. The network switches are up. but no services are running yet A network engineer plugs in a laptop configured as a DHCP client to a switch Which ol the following IP addresses should be assigned to the laptop?
A. 10.1.1.1 B. 169.254.1.128 C. 172 16 128 128 D. 192 168.0.1
Answer: B
Explanation
When a DHCP client is connected to a network and no DHCP server is available, the client can automatically configure a link-local address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range using the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) feature. So, the correct answer is option B, 169.254.1.128. This is also known as an APIPA address.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, by Todd Lammle (Chapter 4: IP Addressing)
Question # 42
An organization is interested in purchasing a backup solution that supports the organization's goals. Which of the following concepts would specify the maximum duration that a given service can be down before
impacting operations?
A. MTTR B. RTO C. MTBF D. RPO
Answer: B Explanation The maximum duration that a given service can be down before it impacts operations is often referred to as the
Recovery Time Objective (RTO). RTO is a key consideration in any backup and disaster recovery plan, as it
determines how quickly the organization needs to be able to recover from a disruption or failure. It is typically
expressed in terms of time, and it helps to inform the design and implementation of the backup solution. For
example, if an organization has a critical service that must be available 24/7, it may have a very low RTO,
requiring that the service be restored within a matter of minutes or even seconds. On the other hand, if the
service can be down for a longer period of time without significantly impacting operations, the organization
may have a higher RTO. When selecting a backup solution, it is important to consider the organization's RTO
requirements and ensure that the solution is capable of meeting those needs. A solution that does not meet the
organization's RTO requirements may not be sufficient to ensure the availability of critical services in the
event of a disruption or failure.
Question # 43
A desktop support department has observed slow wireless speeds for a new line of laptops using the organization's standard image. No other devices have experienced the same issue. Which of the following should the network administrator recommend troubleshooting FIRST to resolve this issue?
A. Increasing wireless signal power B. Installing a new WAP C. Changing the protocol associated to the SSID D. Updating the device wireless drivers
Answer: D
Explanation
Wireless drivers can affect the performance and compatibility of your wireless connection. If only a new line 5 of laptops using the organization’s standard image has experienced slow wireless speeds, it could be that their wireless drivers are outdated or incompatible with the network. Updating the device wireless drivers could
resolve this issue.
Wireless drivers play an important role in the performance of a wireless connection, as they control how the device interacts with the wireless network. If the laptops in question are using an outdated version of the wireless driver, it could be causing the slow speeds. The network administrator should recommend updating the device wireless drivers first to see if this resolves the issue.
Question # 44
After rebooting an AP a user is no longer able to conned to me enterprise LAN A technician plugs a laptop In to the same network jack and receives the IP 169.254 0 200. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. DHCP scope exhaustion B. Signal attenuation C. Channel overlap D. Improper DNS configuration
Answer: A
Explanation
DHCP scope exhaustion occurs when the number of available IP addresses to be leased from a DHCP server have been used up. This could be caused by a large number of clients on the network, or a misconfigured DHCP scope. When this happens, clients will be assigned an IP address from the APIPA range (169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255). To resolve this issue, the DHCP scope needs to be expanded or adjusted to accommodate the number of clients on the network.
Question # 45
A cafeteria is lacing lawsuits related to criminal internet access that was made over its guest network. The
marketing team, however, insists on keeping the cafeteria phone number as the wireless passphrase. Which of
the following actions would Improve wireless security while accommodating the marketing team and
accepting the terms of use?
A. Setting WLAN security to use EAP-TLS B. Deploying a captive portal tor user authentication C. Using geofencing to limit the area covered by the WLAN D. Configuring guest network isolation
Answer: B Explanation A captive portal is a web page that is presented to a user before they are allowed to access a network. It is used
to authenticate users and to ensure that all users have accepted the terms of use for the network. By deploying
a captive portal, the cafeteria can require users to enter their phone number as the passphrase, while still
providing an additional layer of security. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, 8th Edition, page 182.
Question # 46
A network engineer is concerned about VLAN hopping happening on the network. Which of the following should the engineer do to address this concern?
A.Configure private VLANS. B. Change the default VLAN. C. Implement ACLs on the VLAN D. Enable dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: B
Explanation
VLAN hopping is a type of attack that allows an attacker to access or manipulate traffic on a different VLAN
than the one they are connected to. One way to prevent VLAN hopping is to change the default VLAN on a
switch. The default VLAN is the VLAN that is assigned to all ports on a switch by default, usually VLAN 1. If
an attacker connects to an unused port on a switch that has not been configured with a specific VLAN, they
can access or spoof traffic on the default VLAN. By changing the default VLAN to an unused or isolated
VLAN, the network administrator can prevent unauthorized access or interference with legitimate traffic on
A newly installed multifunction copier needs to be set up so scanned documents can be emailed to recipients.
Which of the following ports from the copier's IP address should be allowed?
A. 22 B. 25 C. 53 D. 80
Answer: B Explanation Port 25 is the port number that is commonly used for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which is a
protocol that allows sending and receiving email messages over a network1. Port 25 from the copier’s IP
address should be allowed so that scanned documents can be emailed to recipients. Port 22 is the port number that is commonly used for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that allows
secure and encrypted remote access and control of a device over a network1. Port 22 from the copier’s IP
address is not necessary for emailing scanned documents.
Port 53 is the port number that is commonly used for Domain Name System (DNS), which is a protocol that allows resolving domain names to IP addresses and vice versa on a network1. Port 53 from the copier’s IP
address is not necessary for emailing scanned documents. Port 80 is the port number that is commonly used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is a protocol
that allows transferring web pages and other resources over a network1. Port 80 from the copier’s IP address is
not necessary for emailing scanned documents.
Question # 48
A network administrator is troubleshooting a client's device that cannot connect to the network. A physical inspection of the switch shows the RJ45 is connected. The NIC shows no activity lights. The network administrator moves the device to another location and connects to the network without issues. Which Of the following tools would be the BEST option for the network administrator to use to further troubleshoot?
A. Tone generator B. Multimeter C. Optical time-domain reflectometer D. Cable tester
Answer: D
Explanation
A cable tester is a tool that can verify the integrity and functionality of a network cable. It can measure the electrical characteristics of the cable, such as resistance, capacitance, and impedance, and detect any faults or
defects, such as shorts, opens, or crosstalk. A cable tester can help the network administrator troubleshoot the problem by determining if the cable is faulty or not. A tone generator is a tool that can send an audible signal
through a cable to help locate and identify it. A multimeter is a tool that can measure voltage, current, and resistance of electrical circuits. An optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a tool that can test the quality
and length of fiber optic cables.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.3: Given a scenario, use the appropriate tool to support wired or wireless networks.
Question # 49
An organization would like to implement a disaster recovery strategy that does not require a facility agreement
or idle hardware. Which of the following strategies MOST likely meets the organization's requirements?
A. Cloud site B. Cold site C. Warm site D. Hot site
Answer: A Explanation A cloud site is a type of disaster recovery site that uses cloud computing services to provide backup and
recovery of data and applications in the event of a disaster1. A cloud site does not require a facility agreement
or idle hardware, as the cloud provider manages the infrastructure and resources on demand. A cloud site can
also offer scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness compared to other types of disaster recovery sites.
Question # 50
A technician is tasked with setting up a mail server and a DNS server. The mail port should be secured and
have the ability to transfer large files. Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO).
A. 22 B. 53 C. 110 D. 389 E. 995 F. 3389
Answer: B E Explanation Port 53 is used for DNS, which is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Port 995 is used for
POP3S, which is a protocol for receiving email messages securely. POP3S supports large file transfers and
encryption. Therefore, these two ports should be opened for the mail server and the DNS server project
Question # 51
An IT administrator received an assignment with the following objectives. Conduct a total scan within the company's network tor all connected hosts
. Detect all the types of operating systems running on all devices. Discover all services offered by hosts on the network. Find open ports and detect security risks.Which of the following command-line tools can be used to achieve these objectives?
A. nmap B. arp C. netatat D. tcpdump
Answer: A Explanation Nmap (Network Mapper) is a free and open source command line tool that can be used to scan a network for
all connected hosts, detect the types of operating systems running on all devices, discover all services offered
by hosts on the network, find open ports, and detect security risks. Nmap is commonly used by system administrators and security professionals to audit a network’s security and identify possible vulnerabilities.
Nmap can be used to discover active hosts, scan ports, fingerprint operating systems, detect running services,
and more. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, 8th Edition, page 592.
Question # 52
A PC and a network server have no network connectivity, and a help desk technician is attempting to resolve
the issue. The technician plans to run a constant ping command from a Windows workstation while testing
various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. Which of the following should the technician use?
A. ping —w B. ping -i C. ping —s D. ping —t
Answer: D Explanation ping -t is an option for the ping command in Windows that allows the user to send continuous ping requests to
a target until stopped by pressing Ctrl-C. This can help the technician run a constant ping command while
testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. ping -w is an option for the ping command in
Windows that allows the user to specify a timeout value in milliseconds for each ping request. ping -i is an
option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the time interval in seconds between each
ping request. ping -s is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the size of the
data payload in bytes for each ping request. References: How to Use the Ping Command in Windows - Lifewire
(https://www.lifewire.com/ping-command-2618099)
Question # 53
A network administrator responds to a support ticket that was submitted by a customer who is having issues
connecting to a website inside of the company network The administrator verities that the customer could not
connect to a website using a URL Which of the following troubleshooting steps would be BEST for the
administrator to take?
A. Check for certificate issues B. Contact the ISP C. Attempt to connect to the site via IP address D. Check the NTP configuration.
Answer: C Explanation The best option for the administrator to take would be to attempt to connect to the site via IP address. This will
help to determine if the issue is related to the website's DNS address or if the site itself is not accessible.
Checking for certificate issues may be necessary, but this should be done after the administrator has attempted
to connect to the site via IP address. Contacting the ISP is unnecessary since the issue is related to the website
inside of the company network, and checking the NTP configuration is not relevant to this issue. When a customer is having issues connecting to a website using a URL, one of the first troubleshooting steps a
network administrator should take is attempting to connect to the site using the IP address of the website. This
will help to determine if the issue is related to a DNS resolution problem or a connectivity problem. If the
administrator is able to connect to the website using the IP address, then the issue may be related to a DNS problem. However, if the administrator is still unable to connect, then the issue may be related to a
connectivity problem. In either case, further troubleshooting steps will be necessary. Checking for certificate
issues or NTP configuration, and contacting the ISP would not be the BEST initial steps in this scenario.
Question # 54
Network traffic is being compromised by DNS poisoning every time a company's router is connected to the
internet. The network team detects a non-authorized DNS server being assigned to the network clients and
remediates the incident by setting a trusted DNS server, but the issue occurs again after internet exposure.
Which of the following best practices should be implemented on the router?
A. Change the device's default password. B. Disable router advertisement guard. C. Activate control plane policing. D. Disable unneeded network services.
Answer: A
Question # 55
A network administrator installed a new data and VoIP network. Users are now experiencing poor call quality
when making calls. Which of the following should the administrator do to increase VoIP performance?
A. Configure a voice VLAN. B. Configure LACP on all VoIP phones. C. Configure PoE on the network. D. Configure jumbo frames on the network.
Answer: A Explanation "Benefits of Voice VLAN It ensures that your VoIP (Voice over Internet Phone) devices do not have to contend directly with all the
broadcasts and other traffic from the data VLAN. A voice VLAN can simplify network configuration in some
circumstances." https://community.fs.com/blog/auto-voip-vs-voice-vlan-what-s-the-difference.html Jumbo Frames "When jumbo frames on a VoIP/UC network are enabled, it can cause the same kind of delay to your network
transmissions." "VoIP uses will always not benefit from jumbo frame, as VoIP like gaming, is latency and time sensitive.
Jumbo Frame for Internet Purpose: You will not see any performance boost as the files that came across the
internet does not support jumbo frame." https://www.ankmax.com/newsinfo/1358641.html#:~:text=VoIP%20uses%20will%20always%20not,does%20not%20... summarize this general best practice guide, you should NOT enable jumbo frame feature as a general
home user."
Question # 56
Which of the following connector types would be used to connect to the demarcation point and provide
network access to a cable modem?
A. F-type B. RJ45 C. LC D. RJ11
Answer: A Explanation An F-type connector is a type of coaxial connector that is commonly used to connect a cable modem to the
demarcation point, which is the point at which the cable provider's network ends and the customer's network
begins. The F-type connector is a threaded connector that is typically used for television, cable modem, and
satellite antenna connections.
Question # 57
A technician uses a badge to enter a security checkpoint on a corporate campus. An unknown individual
quickly walks in behind the technician without speaking. Which of the following types of attacks did the
technician experience?
A. Tailgating B. Evil twin C. On-path D. Piggybacking
Answer: A Explanation Tailgating is a type of physical security attack where an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into
a restricted area without their consent or knowledge. Tailgating can allow an attacker to bypass security
measures and gain access to sensitive information or resources. In this scenario, the technician experienced
tailgating when the unknown individual walked in behind the technician without speaking. Piggybacking is
similar to tailgating, but it involves the consent or cooperation of the authorized person. Evil twin is a type of
wireless network attack where an attacker sets up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. On-path is
a type of network attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies traffic between two parties.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 3.2: Given
a scenario, use appropriate network hardening techniques.
Question # 58
A company is moving to a new building designed with a guest waiting area that has existing network ports.
Which of the following practices would BEST secure the network?
A. Ensure all guests sign an NDA. B. Disable unneeded switchports in the area. C. Lower the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area. D. Enable MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses.
Answer: B Explanation One of the best practices to secure the network would be to disable unneeded switchports in the guest waiting
area. This will prevent unauthorized users from connecting to the network through these ports. It's important to
identify which switchports are not in use and disable them, as this will prevent unauthorized access to the
network. Other practices such as ensuring all guests sign an NDA, lowering the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage
in the waiting area and enabling MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses are not as effective in
securing the network as disabling unneeded switchports. Enforcing an NDA with guests may not stop a
malicious user from attempting to access the network, reducing the radio strength only limits the Wi-Fi
coverage, and MAC filtering can be easily bypassed by hackers.
Question # 59
A network administrator needs to monitor traffic on a specific port on a switch. Which of the following should
the administrator configure to accomplish the task?
A. Port security B. Port tagging C. Port mirroring D. Media access control
Answer: C Explanation
Port mirroring is a feature that allows a network technician to monitor traffic on a specific port on a switch by
copying all the traffic from that port to another port where a monitoring device is connected. Port mirroring
can be used for troubleshooting, analysis, or security purposes, such as detecting network anomalies,
performance issues, or malicious activities. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 156)
Question # 60
Classification using labels according to information sensitivity and impact in case of unauthorized access or
leakage is a mandatory component of:
A. an acceptable use policy. B. a memorandum of understanding. C. data loss prevention, D. a non-disclosure agreement.
Answer: C Explanation Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access or leakage
of sensitive information. One of the components of DLP is data classification, which involves labeling data
according to its information sensitivity and impact in case of unauthorized disclosure. Data classification helps
to identify and protect the most critical and confidential data and apply appropriate security controls and
policies. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, processes and
procedures for IT governance. Subobjective: Data loss prevention.
I cleared so many N10-008 while practicing PassExam4Sure dumps. They helped me clear my exams with flying colors! I faced no trouble and my entire N10-008 with PassExam4Sure CompTIA N10-008 practice exam dumps was worth it. Thanks a bunch.
Demi
PassExam4Sure helped me astonishingly improve my results, I cleared my exam with 91% marks. They know how the content and preparation material should be. I cleared my CompTIA N10-008 with flying grades.
Jey
There was a lot of pressure on my head from my parents. My colleague suggested to me PassExam4Sure. It was very satisfying. My tension just vanished when I saw the content. My preparation was very good. All students should use PassExam4Sure, it is very helpful. PassExam4Sure is doing a really good job and they keep the website updated.
Parker
The exam material and notes which were given to me by PassExam4Sure helped me get through in my exam with good grades. My CompTIA N10-008 exam went truly awesome and now I am a certified professional with my money invested in the right way. Guys, stop whatever you’re doing with your certification and just download their dumps for a small fee, I assure you that you won’t regret it.
Mark
I am a father and I had many responsibilities regarding my children because I was not financially strong. Then an opportunity knocks on my door and I got a well-compensated job after passing CompTIA N10-008 admission test for which I had to travel to the US. I worked very hard, day and night and my only sincere mentor were PassExam4Sure. I thoroughly studied the model papers and practice exercises offered by them and passed my CompTIA N10-008 admission test which was a treasure for me. Now I am settled in the US and my children are acquiring a good education.
