ISC CGRC Exam Dumps

Certified in Governance Risk and Compliance

ISC CGRC Sample Questions

Question # 1

The System Owner (SO) of Colvine Tech is implementing a new system in the organization's Information Technology (IT) environment. What objectives are considered when determining possible impact to risk? Response:

A. Integrity, Confidentiality, and Availability (CIA) 
B. Common, Hybrid, and System-Specific 
C. Authentication, Authorization, and Accountability 
D. Low, Moderate, and High 

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Question # 2

Which of the following provides instructions for annual FISMA reporting and emphasizes monitoring the security state of information systems on an ongoing bases with a frequency sufficient to make ongoing, risk-based decisions? Response:

A. Clinger-Cohen Act 
B. OMB memorandum M-11-33, FY 2011 
C. OMB Circular A-130, Appendix III, 1997 
D. FISMA, 2002 

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Question # 3

Any information about an individual maintained by an agency, including (1) any information that can be used to distinguish or trace an individual's identity, such as name, social security number, date and place of birth, mother's maiden name, or biometric records; and (2) any other information that is linked or linkable to an individual, such as medical, educational, financial, and employment information. Response: 

A. Personally Identifiable Information (PII) 
B. Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) 
C. Core Nodal Switching Subsystem (CNSS) 
D. Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) 

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Question # 4

Any information about an individual maintained by an agency, including (1) any information that can be used to distinguish or trace an individual's identity, such as name, social security number, date and place of birth, mother's maiden name, or biometric records; and (2) any other information that is linked or linkable to an individual, such as medical, educational, financial, and employment information. Response: 

A. Personally Identifiable Information (PII) 
B. Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) 
C. Core Nodal Switching Subsystem (CNSS) 
D. Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) 

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Question # 5

An organizational official with statutory or operational authority for specified information and responsibility for establishing the controls for its generation, collection, processing, dissemination, and disposal is known as the: Response:

A. Information System Owner 
B. Authorizing Official 
C. Information Owner 
D. Common Control Provider 

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Question # 6

Aggregate of directives, regulations, rules, and practices that prescribes how an organization manages, protects, and distributes information. Response: 

A. Information Security Policy 
B. National Security System 
C. Information System Owner 
D. System Security Authorization 

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Question # 7

The management, operational, and technical controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) employed by an organization in lieu of the recommended controls in the baselines described in NIST Special Publication 800-53 and CNSS Instruction 1253, that provide equivalent or comparable protection for an information system. Response: 

A. Compensating Security Controls 
B. Common Security Controls 
C. Network Security Controls 
D. Hybrid Security Controls 

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Question # 8

Security control assessors can reuse past assessment results to satisfy the annual FISMA security assessment requirement provided the assessment results are: CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY Response: 

A. Relevant to the determination of control effectivemess 
B. Obtained by assessors with the required degree of independence 
C. Current 
D. Complete 

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Question # 9

What may Colvine Tech do if they determine that the root cause of an unauthorized change is an adversarial attack? Response: 

A. Implement additional controls to reduce the risk of future attacks 
B. Adjust intrusion detection and prevention system 
C. Invoke incident response 
D. All of the above  

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Question # 10

The security controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) for an information system that primarily are implemented and executed by people (as opposed to systems). Response:

A. Operational Controls 
B. Common Control 
C. Visual controls 
D. Embedded controls 

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Question # 11

A situation in which an information system or application receives protection from security controls (or portions of security controls) that are developed, implemented, assessed, authorized, and monitored by entities other than those responsible for the system or application; entities either internal or external to the organization where the system or application resides. Response: 

A. Security Control Inheritance 
B. Network Security Controls 
C. Hybrid Security Controls 
D. System-Specific Security Control 

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Question # 12

An occurrence that actually jeopardizes the CIA of an information system or the information system processes that stores or transmits information or that constitutes a violation or imminent threat of violation of security policies, security procedures, or acceptable use policies. Response:

A. Incident 
B. Data breach 
C. Compromise 
D. Event 

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Question # 13

What role ensures the selection of security controls is consistent with the enterprise architecture, including reference models and segment and solution architectures Response:

A. Information Security Architect 
B. Information System Owner 
C. Authorizing Official 
D. Chief Information Officer 

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Question # 14

Why is security control volatility an important consideration in the development of a security control monitoring strategy? Response: 

A. It identifies needed security control monitoring exceptions. 
B. It indicates a need for compensating controls. 
C. It establishes priority for security control monitoring. 
D. It provides justification for revisions to the configuration management and control plan. 

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Question # 15

The characterization of information or an information system based on an assessment of the potential impact that a loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability of such information or information system would have on organizational operations, organizational assets, individuals, other organizations, and the Nation. Response:

A. Security Category 
B. Security Controls 
C. Adequate Security 
D. Security Categorization 

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Question # 16

A group of any records under the control of any agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual defines which of the following? Response: 

A. System of Record 
B. System Interconnection 
C. System of Records Notice 
D. System Inventory Process 

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Question # 17

Which of the following is an entry in an object's discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group? Response:

A. Access control entry (ACE) 
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE) 
C. Access control list (ACL) 
D. Security Identifier (SID) 

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Question # 18

Gary is the project manager for his project. He and the project team have completed the qualitative risk analysis process and are about to enter the quantitative risk analysis process when Mary, the project sponsor, wants to know what quantitative risk analysis will review. Which of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis will review? Response: 

A. The quantitative risk analysis seeks to determine the true cost of each identified risk event and the probability of each risk event to determine the risk exposure. 
B. The quantitative risk analysis process will review risk events for their probability and impact on the project objectives
C. The quantitative risk analysis reviews the results of risk identification and prepares the project for risk response management. 
D. The quantitative risk analysis process will analyze the effect of risk events that may substantially impact the project's competing demands.

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Question # 19

Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. Response: 

A. Administrative 
B. Automatic 
C. Technical 
D. Physical 

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Question # 20

Any circumstance or event with the potential to adversely impact organizational operations, assets, personnel, etc..? Response: 

A. Threat 
B. Event 
C. Attribute 
D. System 

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Question # 21

What are the six steps of the RMF? Response: 

A. Categorize Select Implement Assess Authorize Monitor
B. Categorize Implement Authorize Select Assess Monitor 
C. Monitor Categorize Assess Authorize Implement Select 
D. Assess Categorize Implement Monitor Select Authorize

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Question # 22

Which of the following groups represents the most likely source of an asset loss through the inappropriate use of computers? Response: 

A. Hackers 
B. Visitors 
C. Customers 
D. Employees 

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Question # 23

What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. Response: 

A. Develop DIACAP strategy. 
B. Assign IA controls. 
C. Assemble DIACAP team. 
D. Initiate IA implementation plan. 
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program. 
F. Conduct validation activity. 

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Question # 24

In which of the following Risk Management Framework (RMF) phases is strategic risk assessment planning performed? Response:

A. Phase 0 
B. Phase 1 
C. Phase 2 
D. Phase 3 

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Question # 25

One of the main objectives of testing is to avoid --------- of normal operations.Response:

A. Disruption 
B. Defend 
C. Orderliness 
D. Stand still 

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Question # 26

According to FIPS Publication 199, what are the three levels of potential impact on organizations in the event of a compromise on confidentiality, integrity, and availability? Response:

A. Confidential, Secret, and High 
B. Minimum, Moderate, and High 
C. Low, Normal, and High 
D. Low, Moderate, and High 

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Question # 27

Which of the following guidance documents is useful in determining the impact level of a particular threat on agency systems? Response: 

A. NIST SP 800-41 
B. NIST SP 800-37 
C. FIPS 199 
D. NIST SP 800-14 

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Question # 28

An environmentally conditioned workspace that is partially equipped with information systems and telecommunications equipment to support relocated operations in the event of a significant disruption. Response: 

A. Warm Site 
B. Hot Site 
C. Cold Site 
D. Data Site 

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Question # 29

What RMF role is primarily responsible for Tasks 1, 2, and 3 in Assessing Security Controls? Response: 

A. Security Control Assessor 
B. Security Assessment Report 
C. Security Control Assessment 
D. Assess Security Controls 

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Question # 30

The threats to an information system and its environment of operation have been classified as human, natural, and machine threats. Which of the following threats is refferred to as the number one threat? Response: 

A. Human threat 
B. Advanced persistent threats 
C. Natural threat 
D. Machine threats 

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Question # 31

Which NIST guide authorizes an organization to tailor system authorization activities to the level of effort and rigor that is suitable for the IS being tested? Response: 

A. NIST SP 800-37 
B. NIST SP 800-53 
C. NIST SP 800-39 
D. NIST SP 800-37A 

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Question # 32

What is FIPS 199? Response: 

A. Standards for Security Categorization of Federal Information and Information Systems 
B. Law for Security Categorization of Federal Information and Information Systems 
C. Terminology for Security Categorization for Federal Information and Information Systems 
D. Data for Security definition for Federal Information and Information Systems 

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Question # 33

The physical surroundings in which an information system processes, stores, transmits, or disseminates information is referred to as Response:

A. IT infrastructure 
B. Information System 
C. Environment of Operation 
D. Facility 

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Question # 34

Who is primarily responsible for the development of system-specific procedures? Response: 

A. The system owner 
B. The information systems security officer (ISSO) 
C. The system architect 
D. The system administrator 

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Question # 35

Which of the following is not an example of automation activity? Response: 

A. Enabling security configurations based on a checklist of security settings 
B. Scanning for compliance against a pre-configured checklist of security settings 
C. Scanning for vulnerabilities and applying the appropriate patches 
D. Conducting table-top exercises 

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Question # 36

FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented? Response: 

A. Level 4 
B. Level 1 
C. Level 3 
D. Level 5 
E. Level 2

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Question # 37

What is included in a POA&M that is presented to the Approving Authority as part of the initial authorization package? Response: 

A. All failed controls identified throughout the RMF process 
B. Only volatile findings that require prioritization in remediation 
C. Deficiencies that have not yet been remediated and verified throughout the RMF process 
D. Only findings that have been evaluated as moderate or high 

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Question # 38

According to NIST SP 800-37 Rev 2, What is step five of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process? Response: 

A. Monitor 
B. Select 
C. Assess 
D. Categorize 

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Question # 39

Which of the following statements correctly describes DIACAP residual risk? Response: 

A. It is the remaining risk to the information system after risk palliation has occurred. 
B. It is a process of security authorization. 
C. It is the technical implementation of the security design. 
D. It is used to validate the information system. 

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Question # 40

Who determines the required level of independence for security control assessors? Response: 

A. Information system owner (ISO) 
B. Information system security manager (ISSM) 
C. Authorizing official (AO) 
D. Information system security officer (ISSO) 

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Question # 41

One of the primary goals in conducting analysis of the test results from a scan during Security Control Assessment (SCA) is to Response:

A. Categorize vulnerabilities 
B. Determine threats to the system 
C. Identify false negative findings 
D. Validate system boundaries 

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Question # 42

FIPS 199, Standards for Security Categorization of Federal Systems defines which 3 Security Categories? Response: 

A. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability 
B. Architectural descriptions & Organizational 
C. Sensitivity, Criticality, availability 
D. Familiarity, Sensitivity, Criticality 

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Question # 43

FIPS 199, Standards for Security Categorization of Federal Systems defines which 3 Security Categories? Response: 

A. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability 
B. Architectural descriptions & Organizational 
C. Sensitivity, Criticality, availability 
D. Familiarity, Sensitivity, Criticality 

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Question # 44

Which of the following governance bodies provides management, operational and technical controls to satisfy security requirements? Response:

A. Chief Information Security Officer 
B. Senior Management 
C. Information Security Steering Committee 
D. Business Unit Manager 

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Question # 45

An information system's boundary definition resides with who? Response: 

A. The Information System Owner, in which he or she would must be careful to consult with authorizing officials (AO), the CIO, CISO, and the risk executive (function).
B. The Information System Owner, in which he would must be careless to consult with authorizing officials (AO), the CIO, CISO, and the risk executive (function).. 
C. The Information System Owner, in which she would must be careful to consult with authorizing officials (AO), the CIO, CISO, and the risk executive (function)..
C. The Information System Owner, in which she would must be careful to consult with authorizing officials (AO), the CIO, CISO, and the risk executive (function)..
D. The Information System Owner, in which he or she would must be careful to consult with authorizing officials (AO), the CIO, CISO, and the safe executive (function).. 

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Question # 46

If an organization shares financial and personal details of a client to other companies without prior consent of the individuals that organization is violating what following Internet law? Response: 

A. Security law 
B. Copyright law 
C. Privacy law 
D. Trademark law 

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Question # 47

nformation that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 12958 as amended by Executive Order 13292, or any predecessor order, or by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classified status. Response: 

A. National Security Information 
B. Information System Owner 
C. Information System Resilience 
D. Federal Information Security Management Act 

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Question # 48

Information that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 12958 as amended by Executive Order 13292, or any predecessor order, or by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classified status. Response: 

A. National Security Information 
B. Information System Owner 
C. Information System Resilience 
D. Federal Information Security Management Act 

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Question # 49

The authorization approach that is employed when multiple organizational officials either from the same organization or different organizations, have a shared interest in authorizing an information system. Response:

A. Joint 
B. Single 
C. Mingle 
D. Double 

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Question # 50

When does monitoring security controls take place? Response: 

A. Before the initial system certification 
B. After the initial system security authorization 
C. Before and after the initial system security accreditation 
D. During the system design phase 

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Question # 51

An instance of an information type. Response:

A. Information 
B. Operation 
C. Destruction 
D. Organization 

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