PMI CAPM Exam Dumps

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

PMI CAPM Sample Questions

Question # 1

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution? 

A. Requested changes  
B. Approved change requests  
C. Work performance information  
D. Implemented defect repair  

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Question # 2

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A. Budget plan  
B. Resource plan  
C. Scope plan  
D. Strategic plan  

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Question # 3

An output of the Create WBS process is: 

A. Scope baseline.  
B. Project scope statement.  
C. Organizational process assets.  
D. Requirements traceability matrix.  

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Question # 4

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A. Histogram  
B. Quality audits  
C. Benchmarking  
D. Performance measurement analysis  

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Question # 5

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan? 

A. Expert judgment  
B. Project management methodology  
C. Project management information system (PMIS)  
D. Project selection methods  

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Question # 6

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner? 

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach  
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach  
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach  
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach  

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Question # 7

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? 

A. Manage Project Team  
B. Collect Requirements  
C. Sequence Activities  
D. Direct and Manage Project Work  

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Question # 8

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur? 

A. At project initiation  
B. During work performance analysis  
C. Throughout the life of the project  
D. At project milestones  

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Question # 9

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A. Scope audits  
B. Scope reviews  
C. Quality audits  
D. Control chart  

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Question # 10

Which is an example of Administer Procurements? 

A. Negotiating the contract  
B. Authorizing contractor work  
C. Developing the statement of work  
D. Establishing evaluation criteria  

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Question # 11

An output of the Develop Project Team process is: 

A. change requests  
B. team performance assessments  
C. project staff assignments  
D. project documents updates  

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Question # 12

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. Plan Communications  
B. Performance reporting  
C. Project status reports  
D. Distribute Information  

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Question # 13

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)? 

A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives. 
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly. 
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues. 
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages. 

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Question # 14

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting

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Question # 15

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A. Utilize the change control process.  
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.  
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.  
D. Fast-track the remaining development.  

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Question # 16

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing

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Question # 17

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A. Program  
B. Functional  
C. Project  
D. Portfolio  

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Question # 18

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work

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Question # 19

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget? 

A. Monitoring and Controlling  
B. Executing  
C. Planning  
D. Initiating  

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Question # 20

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis

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Question # 21

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart  
B. Reporting flow diagram  
C. Project organization chart  
D. Project team structure diagram  

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Question # 22

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 23

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning

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Question # 24

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks? 

A. Identify Risks  
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis  
C. Plan Risk Management  
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis  

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Question # 25

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A. always be applied uniformly.
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team.
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Question # 26

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A. Histograms  
B. Scatter diagrams  
C. Flowcharts  
D. Checksheets  

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Question # 27

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A. Market conditions and published commercial information
B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions

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Question # 28

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information

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Question # 29

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination

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Question # 30

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A. Final phase of the project  
B. Start of the project  
C. End of the project  
D. Midpoint of the project  

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Question # 31

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle

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Question # 32

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)  
B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)  
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)  
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)  

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Question # 33

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A. One
B. Five 
C. Six
D. Seven

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Question # 34

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A. Make-or-buy decisions.
B. Activity cost estimates.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Procurement documents.

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Question # 35

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

A. Bottom-up  
B. Parametric  
C. Analogous  
D. Three-point  

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Question # 36

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.
D. Project documents and historical information.

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Question # 37

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A. Methodology  
B. Risk category  
C. Risk attitude  
D. Assumption analysis  

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Question # 38

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend

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Question # 39

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan? 

A. Resource plan  
B. Project management plan  
C. Cost control plan  
D. Expected monetary value plan  

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Question # 40

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis

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Question # 41

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process? 

A. Change requests  
B. Performance reports  
C. Organizational process assets  
D. Project management plan  

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Question # 42

What is the total float of the critical path?

A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar

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Question # 43

The Human Resource Management processes are: 

A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team. 
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team. 
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team. 
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team

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Question # 44

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule

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Question # 45

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project Integration Management  
B. Project Communications Management  
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)  
D. Project Scope Management

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Question # 46

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Question # 47

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to: 

A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.  
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.  
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.  
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.  

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Question # 48

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A. Analogous  
B. Parametric  
C. Bottom-up  
D. Top-down  

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Question # 49

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity

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Question # 50

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur? 

A. When the project uses capital expenditures  
A. When the project uses capital expenditures  
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses  
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal 

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Question # 51

Portfolio Management is management of:

A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.
C. all projects undertaken by a company.
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Question # 52

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A. Estimate Costs  
B. Plan Cost Management  
C. Determine Budget  
D. Control Costs  

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Question # 53

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.  
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.  
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.  
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.  

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Question # 54

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter

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Question # 55

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document? 

A. Schedule management plan  
B. Project management plan  
C. Quality management plan  
D. Resource management plan  

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Question # 56

When is a Salience Model used?

A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)

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Question # 57

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A. Collect Requirements  
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution  
C. Monitor and Control Project Work  
D. Develop Project Management Plan  

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Question # 58

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A. Organizational process assets
B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 59

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?  

A. Monitoring and Controlling  
B. Initiating  
C. Planning  
D. Executing  

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Question # 60

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A. Procurement audit
B. Lessons learned
C. Performance reporting
D. Payment requests

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Question # 61

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution? 

A. Integrating all planned activities  
B. Performing the activities included in the plan  
C. Developing and maintaining the plan  
D. Execution of deliverables  

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Question # 62

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

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Question # 63

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles? 

A. Staffing level is highest at the start.  
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.  
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.  
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.  

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Question # 64

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade

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Question # 65

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A. Build vs. buy  
B. Expert judgment  
C. Alternatives identification  
D. Product analysis  

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Question # 66

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating

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Question # 67

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation

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Question # 68

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve? 

A. Functional managers and manager of project managers  
B. Functional managers only  
C. Project managers only  
D. Technical managers and project managers  

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Question # 69

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A. Define Activities.  
B. Sequence Activities.  
C. Define Scope.  
D. Control Schedule.  

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Question # 70

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing

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Question # 71

To which process is work performance information an input? 

A. Administer Procurements  
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution  
C. Create WBS  
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis  

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Question # 72

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling

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Question # 73

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with: 

A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.  
B. accuracy of the work deliverables.  
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement.  
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).  

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Question # 74

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A. quality audits
B. process analysis
C. statistical sampling
D. benchmarking

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Question # 75

An input of the Control Schedule process is the: 

A. resource calendar.  
B. activity list.  
C. risk management plan.  
D. organizational process assets.  

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Question # 76

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management

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Question # 77

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process? 

A. Organizational process assets  
B. Resource availability  
C. Perform Integrated Change Control  
D. Team performance assessment  

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Question # 78

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking

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Question # 79

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A. 0.45  
B. 0.56  
C. 0.70  
D. 1.36  

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