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Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
A. northbound interface
B. software virtual interface
C. southbound interface
D. tunnel Interface
What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?
A. Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.
B. Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path.
C. Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management.
D. Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management.
What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?
A. implemented over a dedicated WAN
B. located in the same data center as the users
C. all hosted on physical servers
D. accessed over the Internet
What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?
A. The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3.
B. The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover.
C. The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network.
D. The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.
Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?
A. console
B. Telnet
C. Bash
D. SSH
How does encryption project the wireless network?
A. via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame
B. via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks
C. via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it
D. via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network
Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?
A. 1 Hz signal
B. 1 GHz signal
C. 60 Hz signal
D. 60 GHz signal
What is a function of MAC address learning?
A. It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces
B. It increases the potential for MAC address flooding.
C. It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks
D. lt increases security on the management VLAN
What is a zero-day exploit?
A. It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available
B. It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.
C. It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth
D. It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server.
A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
A. /29
B. /30
C. /27
D. /28
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
A. The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode
B. The switch port mode must be set to trunk
C. The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP
D. IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.
Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?
A. config network secureweb enable
B. config certificate generate web admin
C. config network webmode enable
D. config network telnet enable
What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA Center from traditional campus device management?
A. per-device
B. centralized
C. device-by-device hands-on
D. CLI-oriented device
Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.)
A. REMOVE
B. REDIRECT
C. OPOST
D. GET
E. UPOP
When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?
A. Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC
B. Re-associate the WLC with the access point.
C. Re-enable the WLC interfaces
D. Reboot the WLC
Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points?
A. Kerberos
B. 802.1Q
C. 802.1x
D. TACACS+
E. RADIUS
What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)
A. It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.
B. It supports between 50 and 100 users.
C. It supports between 1 and 50 users.
D. It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.
E. A router port connects to a broadband connection.
The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?
A. ip route 192.168.10.1
B. ip default-gateway 192.168.10.1
C. ip helper-address 192.168.10.1
D. ip dhcp address 192.168.10.1
Refer to the exhibit. When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?
A. Null0
B. VIan58
C. Vlan60
D. VIan59
What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)
A. It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.
B. It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.
C. It enables configuration task automation.
D. It provides increased scalability and management options.
E. It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.
A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?
A. ip ospf network broadcast
B. ip ospf dead-interval 40
C. ip ospf network point-to-point
D. ip ospf priority 0
What describes a northbound REST API for SON?
A. application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests
B. network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods
C. network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes
D. application-facing interface far GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods
When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?
A. for small networks with minimal need for growth
B. the access and distribution layers must be on the same device
C. for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites
D. only when using VSS technology
What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?
A. Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.
B. Direct connectivity is provided to internal hosts from outside an enterprise network.
C. Communication to the internet Is reachable without the use of NAT.
D. All external hosts are provided with secure communication to the Internet.
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1?
A. backing up syslogs at a remote location
B. configuring a password for the console port
C. configuring enable passwords on network devices
D. setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure
A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?
A. Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.
B. Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.
C. Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.
D. Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?
A. It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.
B. It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.
C. It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.
D. It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.
What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?
A. 00-00-0C-07-AD-89
B. 00-00-5E-00-01-0a
C. 00-07-C0-70-AB-01
D. 00-C6-41-93-90-91
Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?
A. channels 2, 7, 9, and 11
B. channels 1, 6, 11, and 14
C. channels 2, 7, and 11
D. channels 1, 6, and 11
What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?
A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.
B. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.
C. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network
D. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.
Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?
A. shaping
B. policing
C. CBWFQ
D. LLQ
What is a function of an endpoint?
A. It is used directly by an individual user to access network services
B. It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network
C. It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN
D. It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.
What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?
A. to reduce interference
B. to allow for channel bonding
C. to stabilize the RF environment
D. to increase bandwidth
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
A. Lightweight with local switching disabled
B. Local with AP fallback enabled
C. OfficeExtend with high availability disabled
D. FlexConnect with local switching enabled
Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)
A. TCP
B. IP
C. RTP
D. UDP
E. ARP
Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?
A. IPS
B. firewall
C. access point
D. switch
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 18
Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?
A. LC to SC
B. SC t ST
C. SC to SC
D. LC to LC
How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?
A. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.
B. TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.
C. TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.
D. TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.
How does MAC learning function on a switch?
A. broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing
B. adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table
C. sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received
D. sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group
Which encryption method is used by WPA3?
A. PSK
B. TKIP
C. SAE
D. AES
What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?
A. Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.
B. Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.
C. Cloud-based mode APs are easy to deploy but harder to automate than APs in autonomous mode.
D. Autonomous mode APs are easy to deploy and automate than APs in cloud-based mode.
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A. management
B. control
C. action
D. protected frame
What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?
A. It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.
B. It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.
C. It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.
D. It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.
What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?
A. VLAN trunking
B. tunneling
C. first hop redundancy
D. link aggregation
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?
A. FF00:1/12
B. 2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128
C. 2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64
D. FE80::1/10
Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?
A. to protect against default gateway failures
B. to prevent loops in a network
C. to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit
D. to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment
Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?
A. applies 802.1x authentication
B. usesTKIP
C. employs PKI to identify access points
D. protects against brute force attacks
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.
B. Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.
C. Run routing protocols.
D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.
E. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
A. global unicast address
B. anycast address
C. multicast address
D. link-local address
An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?
A. Password complexity enable
B. confreg 0x2142
C. Login authentication my-auth-list
D. service password-encryption
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
A. shaping
B. classification
C. policing
D. marking
What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?
A. core and WAN
B. access and WAN
C. distribution and access
D. core and distribution
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
A. user-activity logging
B. service limitations
C. consumption-based billing
D. identity verification
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
A. SYIM flood
B. reflection
C. teardrop
D. amplification
A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)
A. crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024
B. transport input all
C. crypto key generate rsa usage-keys
D. crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048
E. transport Input ssh
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
A. They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.
B. They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.
C. They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.
D. They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.
E. They allow encrypted traffic.
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
A. different security settings
B. discontinuous frequency ranges
C. different transmission speeds
D. unique SSIDs
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
A. VLAN numbering
B. VLAN DSCP
C. VLAN tagging
D. VLAN marking
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
A. a lightweight access point
B. a firewall
C. a wireless LAN controller
D. a LAN switch
What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?
A. 00-00-0C-07-AD-89
B. 00-00-5E-00-01-0a
C. 00-07-C0-70-AB-01
D. 00-C6-41-93-90-91
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
A. dynamic
B. static
C. active
D. auto